Ollie Garchy
Active member
ECONOMIC MISCALCULATION: My Two Cents (Part One)
The question sounds simple: "What were Germany's top mistakes". If we are going to understand WWII, we have to look at where it was actually fought as defined by the number of men and the volume of equipment involved. We can then focus on the important stuff like strategy, tactics, manpower and equipment. Even though German industry waged the war according to western norms, with slave labour representing a significant departure, their Soviet counterparts did not. This post concentrates on this distinction.
THE TRADITIONAL ARGUMENT:
The traditional accounts of German military-industrial output distort the course and nature of the war. A lot of ink is spilled demonstrating the economic superiority of the American-British-Soviet alliance and what might be called the German productive blunder. Other members have written enough about this point. Doppleganger writes that "[Hitler] was trying to keep German public opinion and morale high but this plan soon backfired. Hitler knew he was planning to attack the USSR. With the enormous industrial capablities of his enemies ranged against him getting German industry onto a war footing should have been a top priority". The traditional hypothesis is however a weak one.
The old "Blitzkrieg" concept has been progressively dismantled in recent years. This traditional point of view developed after 1945 for a few reasons:
(1) The victors had to account for their own overblown estimates of German rearmament during the 1930s. Since France, Britain and the Soviet Union built far more weapons on a per capita basis, the myth of Nazi rearmament needed a quick fix. Instead of thinking hard about the subject or reading German documents, the scholars came up with the morale hypothesis.
The victors should have approached the subject differently. German industrialists in fact developed the civilian infrastructure for military reasons. Working with a concept that united civilian and military industrial capacities into what we now call "dual-use" capabilities, the Nazis rightly thought that all industrial power translated into military power. German automobile output and not that of tanks boomed during the 1930s. It was still rearmament.
(2) Scholars seem to have a hard time grasping dual-use capacities. They therefore tend to emphasize the overwhelming industrial superiority of the Allies as based on weapons output. Stalin's Russia therefore seemed somehow more industrialized than Germany because his factories poured out far more weapons systems than Hitler's. Certain statistics act as significant contradictions, however. While it is true that the Allies produced more weapons than Germany, these numbers distort real industrial potential or how industries work.
WHY IT IS WRONG:
First of all, industrial might in 1941 was partly measured in terms of machine-tools (there are many others of course but machine-tools are important). In this case, the Germans had a lead. Soviet stats are hard to find and many are coloured by propaganda. These statistics reflect those found in the documents or actually within Germany in 1945. The stocks of the occupied countries (the Nazis did not move the majority of this equipment) added to these totals. German industry, bolstered by the occupied territories, had an incredibly high armaments potential.
Britain: 450,000 in 1938 (doubled by 1945)
Germany: 1,281,000 in 1938 (doubled by 1945)
USA: 942,000 in 1940 (doubled by 1945)
USSR: 44,600 through Lend-Lease
(According to USSBS. Soviet Stats left out)
On the basis of these numbers, Germany was in an excellent position to increase base capacities as well as produce vast amounts of armaments. Given enough devotion to the war effort (say Germany mobilized twice the industrial resources of the United States) Germany probably could have outproduced the Allies in terms of tanks and even aircraft.
The question sounds simple: "What were Germany's top mistakes". If we are going to understand WWII, we have to look at where it was actually fought as defined by the number of men and the volume of equipment involved. We can then focus on the important stuff like strategy, tactics, manpower and equipment. Even though German industry waged the war according to western norms, with slave labour representing a significant departure, their Soviet counterparts did not. This post concentrates on this distinction.
THE TRADITIONAL ARGUMENT:
The traditional accounts of German military-industrial output distort the course and nature of the war. A lot of ink is spilled demonstrating the economic superiority of the American-British-Soviet alliance and what might be called the German productive blunder. Other members have written enough about this point. Doppleganger writes that "[Hitler] was trying to keep German public opinion and morale high but this plan soon backfired. Hitler knew he was planning to attack the USSR. With the enormous industrial capablities of his enemies ranged against him getting German industry onto a war footing should have been a top priority". The traditional hypothesis is however a weak one.
The old "Blitzkrieg" concept has been progressively dismantled in recent years. This traditional point of view developed after 1945 for a few reasons:
(1) The victors had to account for their own overblown estimates of German rearmament during the 1930s. Since France, Britain and the Soviet Union built far more weapons on a per capita basis, the myth of Nazi rearmament needed a quick fix. Instead of thinking hard about the subject or reading German documents, the scholars came up with the morale hypothesis.
The victors should have approached the subject differently. German industrialists in fact developed the civilian infrastructure for military reasons. Working with a concept that united civilian and military industrial capacities into what we now call "dual-use" capabilities, the Nazis rightly thought that all industrial power translated into military power. German automobile output and not that of tanks boomed during the 1930s. It was still rearmament.
(2) Scholars seem to have a hard time grasping dual-use capacities. They therefore tend to emphasize the overwhelming industrial superiority of the Allies as based on weapons output. Stalin's Russia therefore seemed somehow more industrialized than Germany because his factories poured out far more weapons systems than Hitler's. Certain statistics act as significant contradictions, however. While it is true that the Allies produced more weapons than Germany, these numbers distort real industrial potential or how industries work.
WHY IT IS WRONG:
First of all, industrial might in 1941 was partly measured in terms of machine-tools (there are many others of course but machine-tools are important). In this case, the Germans had a lead. Soviet stats are hard to find and many are coloured by propaganda. These statistics reflect those found in the documents or actually within Germany in 1945. The stocks of the occupied countries (the Nazis did not move the majority of this equipment) added to these totals. German industry, bolstered by the occupied territories, had an incredibly high armaments potential.
Britain: 450,000 in 1938 (doubled by 1945)
Germany: 1,281,000 in 1938 (doubled by 1945)
USA: 942,000 in 1940 (doubled by 1945)
USSR: 44,600 through Lend-Lease
(According to USSBS. Soviet Stats left out)
On the basis of these numbers, Germany was in an excellent position to increase base capacities as well as produce vast amounts of armaments. Given enough devotion to the war effort (say Germany mobilized twice the industrial resources of the United States) Germany probably could have outproduced the Allies in terms of tanks and even aircraft.