Mr KillKill
Active member
Recently I was listening to the radio and they were talking about Don Quixote and the announcer kept pronouncing the name as “Don Quicks-Tey”.
At first I didn’t understand what she was on about until she advised that they have an argument in the studio as to how the name is pronounced each time the name is mentioned and that “Don Quicks-Tey” was the anglicized version.
“Don Key-Ho-Tey” is the way I have heard the name pronounced all my life so I don’t understand the reasoning behind the change, as far as I’m concerned, you can have an equivalent but not an anglicized version. For example, the Spanish (Latin?) name Jose (pronounced Ho-Say) is the equivalent of the English name Joseph (pronounced Joe-Sef). Therefore, because of the two different languages, you end up with two different versions both in spelling and pronunciation even though it is technically still the same name.
Don Quixote, to my knowledge, is purely a Spanish name and has no English equivalent, if it did and we were to pronounce it differently, wouldn’t it at least be spelt differently?
“Anglicizing” a word or name simply by emphasizing a certain letter does not make it anglicized, it simply makes the pronunciation incorrect. Like I said, you can have an equivalent but this “anglicizing” business seems ridiculous to me.
Thoughts anyone
At first I didn’t understand what she was on about until she advised that they have an argument in the studio as to how the name is pronounced each time the name is mentioned and that “Don Quicks-Tey” was the anglicized version.
“Don Key-Ho-Tey” is the way I have heard the name pronounced all my life so I don’t understand the reasoning behind the change, as far as I’m concerned, you can have an equivalent but not an anglicized version. For example, the Spanish (Latin?) name Jose (pronounced Ho-Say) is the equivalent of the English name Joseph (pronounced Joe-Sef). Therefore, because of the two different languages, you end up with two different versions both in spelling and pronunciation even though it is technically still the same name.
Don Quixote, to my knowledge, is purely a Spanish name and has no English equivalent, if it did and we were to pronounce it differently, wouldn’t it at least be spelt differently?
“Anglicizing” a word or name simply by emphasizing a certain letter does not make it anglicized, it simply makes the pronunciation incorrect. Like I said, you can have an equivalent but this “anglicizing” business seems ridiculous to me.
Thoughts anyone