Think about it in political terms. How could the Soviet Union legally justify their invasion of Poland?

The concieved them as a threat and so they launched a Pre-emptive strike?

Well that would be pretty hard to legally justify I would think. A pre-emptive strike is an invasion but the Soviets had a reason that in their eyes justified it.

Give up guys?

I dunno... I'm out.

The Russians apparently claimed they were protecting the Poles from the Germans although I am finding this hard to verify.

Soviet claims that Eastern Poland was doing just fine or better under the occupation of the "liberating" Red Army; the Soviets "protecting" the Poles and minorities from the barbarism of the Nazis while introducing "wonderous" advances in agriculture and industry.

http://felsztyn.tripod.com/id15.html

oh man... that's it, I bet.

OK, the official reason that Vladimir Potemkin gave the Polish Ambassador Grzysbowski at 3.00 AM on September 17th, 1939 was that the Polish state had ceased to exist at that time. Therefore, the Soviet Union's guarantee of independence to the Polish state was no longer valid. Of course, what happened afterwards was that the Soviets took their slice of Poland that had previously been agreed with Germany. Their official reason for invading Poland however was that there was no Poland in existence when they invaded.

d'oh!

I passed that up assuming that wasn't it... I feel so dense... oh well take two Doppleganger...

My turn again then.

Ok, a visual question this time. To what WWII German formation did the following symbol belong to?